QUIZ SET Z: Geology 101

Check the Course Syllabus for the DUE DATE of this quiz set.

Come to class on the due date with a SCANTRON filled in with your answers.  You must submit a SCANTRON to receive credit. 

This Quiz Set covers Chapters 15, 16, 18, 19 and 20 in the Earth – An Introduction to Physical Geology textbook (8th edition by Tarbuck & Lutgens).  I encourage you to print out the quiz and work on it as you read each chapter.  There are 50 questions, about 10 per chapter.  The questions are not necessarily in the order that the topics are covered in each chapter. 

Chapter 15

1)  How do the strength and cohesion of soil or sediment change with the addition of water?

A) Water does not affect the cohesion but lowers the strength of the soil.

B) Water reduces the cohesion and has a lubricating effect on the soil. 

C) Water increases the strength and cohesion.

D) None of the above.

 

2)  __________ involves movement on a zone of compressed air.

A) A slump

B) A mudflow

C) A rock avalanche

D) Soil creep

 

3)  Which one of the following operates primarily in areas of permafrost?

A) rock avalanche

B) solifluction

C) soil creep

D) mudflow

 

4)  Which of the following was a major factor leading to the Gros Ventre, WY slide?

A) Erosion by the river cut through tilted sandstone into water-saturated clay.

B) Soils and shallow bedrock were very dry and fragile from a recent drought.

C) A strong earthquake caused the unstable rock layers to move.

D) Freezing weather caused the overlying sandstone to slide on the icy clay bed.

 

5)  What caused the mudflows (lahars) on the Nevado del Ruiz volcano in 1985?

A) The eruption of the mountain caused ice and snow near the top to melt.

B) A crater lake was broken during an eruption.

C) Warm weather caused rapid melting of snow and ice near the summit.

D) All of the above.

 

6)  Which statement best describes slumping, a mass wasting process?

A) A mass of soil fractured rock becomes saturated with water and suddenly flows downhill.

B) Blocks of hard bedrock rapidly slide downhill along fracture surfaces.

C) The soil and regolith move downhill very slowly.

D) A block or blocks of rock or soil slide downhill along a curved slip surface.

 

7)  The most rapid type of mass movement is a __________, while the slowest type is a __________.  (Choose the answer with the correct pair of terms to fill in the blanks.) 

A) slump; lahar

B) lahar; debris flow

C) rock avalanche; creep

D) debris flow; solifluction

 

8)  Which of the following mass movements is most likely to occur in a geologic setting where the rock strata are inclined?

A) debris flow

B) slump

C) creep

D) rockslide

 

9)  Which of the following statements concerning mudflows is NOT correct?

A) Mudflows may be caused by heavy rains or melting snow.

B) In hilly areas, mudflows move down the canyons and stream valleys.

C) Mudflows deposit talus slopes.

D) Mudflows can move and carry very large boulders and other coarse debris.

 

10)  How do freezing, thawing, wetting, and drying contribute to soil creep?

A) The soil becomes much weaker when dry and frozen.

B) Gravity exerts a much stronger force when the soil is wet and thawed.

C) The soil expands and contracts, lifting particles and dropping them a slight distance downslope.

D) Eventually, these cause the soil and regolith to suddenly slide down the slope.

Chapter 16

11)  Which of the following would cause streams to cut downward into the land surface?  

A) sea level falls or the land subsides

B) sea level falls or the land rises  

C) sea level rises or the land subsides               

D) sea level rises or the land rises

 

12)  The small streams that come together to form a larger stream high in a drainage basin are called ___________, whereas where the stream ends at a delta, the main channel splits into many smaller channels called __________.

A) cotributaries; levees

B) endotributaries; exotributaries

C) tributaries; distributaries

D) distributaries; cotributaries

 

13)  __________ in a delta are essentially cross strata inclined toward deeper water.

A) Backset beds

B) Topset beds

C) Foreset beds

D) Bottomset beds

 

14)  Where is does the most erosion occur along a meandering stream?

A) on the straight channel segments that connect the meander loops

B) on the outer parts of the meander loops or bends

C) at the unconsolidated point bars

D) on the inner banks of the meander loops

 

15)  __________ are characteristics of downcutting streams and a youthful stage of valley evolution.

A) Rapids, lots of whitewater, and narrow V-shaped eroded valleys

B) Wide floodplains

C) A U-shaped, cross-valley profiles

D) Meandering channels and natural levees

 

16)  Many larger rivers in the Colorado Plateau region meander in deep, narrow canyons and have no floodplains. How could this happen?

A) Original, youthful streams continued to downcut as the land rose.

B) Original, old age streams downcut as the land gradually rose.

C) As sea level dropped, the original youthful streams matured into old-age streams.

D) As sea level rose, the original, old age streams were rejuvenated.

 

17)  What is the drop in water surface elevation divided by the distance the water flows?

A) stream discharge

B) hydraulic capacity

C) hydrologic resistance

D) stream gradient

 

18)  Which one of the following statements is true concerning natural levees?

A) Depositional features formed at times of low discharge.

B) They form during floods.

C) Erosional features left behind when meander cutoff occurs.

D) Form the high, steep banks of a downcutting stream.

 

19)  Which of the following features would probably NOT be common along a stream which was experiencing a fall in base level?

A) natural levees; broad floodplains

B) rapids; channel bed potholes

C) waterfalls; entrenched meanders

D) V-shaped valleys

 

20)  How does urbanization (paving, etc.) affect runoff and infiltration in a small, previously forested, drainage basin?

A) both runoff and infiltration decrease

B) runoff decreases; infiltration increases

C) both runoff and infiltration increase

D) infiltration decreases; runoff increases

Chapter 18

21)  The __________ was the most recent Pleistocene glacial episode in North America.

A) Dakotan

B) Kansan

C) Indianan

D) Wisconsinan

 

22)  __________ is one of the two main ways that glaciers flow.

A) Basal slip

B) Crevassal slip

C) Frost heaving

D) Morainal sliding

 

23)  Which one of the following applies to a valley glacier that lengthens (extends its terminus downslope) over a period of many years?

A) Wastage exceeds accumulation.

B) Accumulation exceeds wastage.

C) Accumulation and wastage are about equal.

D) none of the above

 

24)  Which of the following glacial features would most likely be found the closest to each other?

A) horn and terminal moraine

B) cirque and horn

C) hanging valley and outwash plain

D) drumlin and fiord

 

25)  Which one of the following samples and experimental measurements would provide the most information about the Earth's climate over the last 100,000 years or so?

A) cores from sea ice in the Arctic Ocean; NaCl content

B) sediment cores from a terminal moraine in Ohio sand to clay ratio

C) sediment cores from a Pleistocene loess deposit in the state of Mississippi; SiO2 content

D) cores from the Greenland ice sheet; ratios of the oxygen isotopes (0-18/0-16)

 

26)  __________ is the best explanation for a glacial surge.

A) The climate cools suddenly and a retreating glacier begins to advance

B) Heavy snowfalls resulting in avalanches in the zone of accumulation

C) Melting at the base of the glacier resulting in increased rates of basal slip

D) Crevasses opening suddenly near the snout of a glacier

 

27)  Which one of the following prominent landforms in the Basin & Range region (stretching from the Wasatch Range in Utah westward to the Sierra Nevada, in California) formed during the Pleistocene glacial episodes?

A) terminal moraines of continental ice sheets that moved south from Canada

B) old shorelines of large, pluvial lakes

C) erosional features produced by continental glaciation

D) subaerial deltas submerged by the post-glacial rise in sea level

 

28)  A fiord is __________.

A) a glacier-cut valley that floods with ocean water as sea level rises

B) a glacier-cut valley that is dammed by an end moraine to form a large lake

C) a glacier-cut valley which sinks below sea level due to glacial rebound after the ice melts

D) a large, kettle-pocked moraine left as an island when sea level rises following melting of the ice

 

29)  Where do most icebergs in the North Atlantic Ocean come from?

A) by calving of glaciers in Greenland

B) as large masses of sea ice that float eastward from Nova Scotia

C) as masses of sea ice that float southward from the Arctic Ocean

D) by calving of glaciers in Norway

 

30)  Which one of the following would NOT have been important for determining the advances and retreats of ice sheets during the Pleistocene epoch? (Hint: the answer relates to the name Milankovitch.)

A) movements of Earth's tectonic plates

B) variations in the Sun's energy output

C) precession of Earth's orbit

D) wobbling of Earth's rotational axis

Chapter 19

31)  Which one of the following statements is true?

A) Desert landscapes are monotonous, relatively flat areas covered to various depths with sand.

B) Deserts and dry lands are concentrated in areas of ascending air masses and relatively low atmospheric pressures.

C) Despite infrequent rainfalls, erosion and deposition by running water are important for creating desert landscapes.

D) Rainshadow deserts occur on the sides of mountains that face the direction the wind is coming from. 

 

32)  Most desert regions occur at about _____ degrees latitude north and south of the equator because this an area of ____________________. 

A) 60; rising air masses and low atmospheric pressure

B) 30; sinking air masses and high atmospheric pressure

C) 10; rising air masses and low atmospheric pressure

D) 0; sinking air masses and high atmospheric pressure

 

33)  Which one of the following relates most closely to why deflation might eventually stop in a desert area?

A) rising sea level

B) development of a desert pavement

C) an increase speed of prevailing wind

D) an increase in rainfall and flash flooding

 

34)  Where in a desert region would you likely find the smallest sized sediment particles (mostly silt and clay)? 

A) playa

B) sand dune

C) bajada

D) alluvial fan

 

35)  Which one of the following statements about sand dunes is correct?

A) A dune migrates in the direction of inclination of the slip face.

B) The more gently sloping surface is the leeward slope of the dune.

C) Sand is blown up the slip face and rolls down the more gently sloping flank of the dune.

D) None of the above are correct.

 

36)  Assume that the slip face of a dune slopes downhill toward the east. What is the direction of the prevailing wind?

A) east to west

B) north to south

C) south to north

D) west to east

 

37)  Loess deposits in the central United States __________.

A) blew in from the dry areas in the Great Plains and southwestern desert areas

B) originated as rock flour in Pleistocene glacial streams and rivers

C) accumulated from flooding of the Mississippi River

D) were originally deposited as barchanoid dunes and later redeposited by glaciers

 

38)  Of the regions listed, where has the greatest amount of desertification been occurring during the last 50 or so years?   

A) the Empty Quarter of the Arabian Peninsula

B) the Sahel along the southern margin of the Sahara Desert

C) the Dust Bowl states of the Great Plains in the U.S.A.

D) the steppe lands of southern Russia, Ukraine, and Kazakhstan

 

39)  A __________ is caused by wind erosion, whereas ___________ is an example of wind deposition.

A) bajada; barcanoid

B) inselbergs; deflation

C) desert pavement; bajada

D) ventifact; loess

 

40)  Desert and steppe lands cover about what percentage of Earth's land area?

A) 10%

B) 66%

C) 30%

D) 3%

Chapter 20

41)  Water movement and sand transport parallel to the beach are caused by __________.

A) strong, offshore winds creating a pileup of water along the beach front

B) deep-water waves breaking offshore

C) waves hitting the beach at an angle

D) a long fetch parallel to the beach

 

42)  The Saffir-Simpson scale measures

A) the size of waves hitting a beach

B) the speed and erosional power of tidal currents

C) the rate of beach drift and volume of sand moved by beach drift

D) the strength of hurricanes

 

43)  A __________ is the broad dome of water that comes on shore with a hurricane.

A) Cyclonic mound

B) Storm surge

C) Eyewall ridge

D) Sea dome

 

44)  Sea level around the world is slowly rising.  Which of the following is the MOST important factor causing present-day sea level rise? 

A) Increasing power of hurricanes. 

B) Warming and expansion of ocean water.   

C) Melting of glacial ice.

D) Erosional retreat of shorelines. 

 

45)  A wave-cut platform will grow wider as a __________ retreats due to wave erosion. 

A) wave-cut cliff

B) barrier beach

C) tombolo

D) sea stack

 

46)  What do spits, baymouth bars and tombolos have in common?

A) They form as headlands erode and the sand is deposited in offshore bars.

B) They form wherever wave erosion makes a wave-cut platform.

C) They are formed by beach drift and longshore currents.   

D) They all form on the inland (lagoon) sides of barrier islands. 

 

47)  Which of the following methods of stabilizing shorelines is the most unlike the other three?   

A) groin

B) beach  nourishment

C) jetty

D) sea wall

 

48)  A natural sand ridge that connects an island to the  mainland is called a __________.

A) sand groin

B) spit

C) jetty barrier

D) tombolo

 

49)  __________ are the maximum-amplitude tides produced when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned.

A) Rip tides

B) Spring tides

C) Surf tides

D) Neap tides

 

50)  Which one of the following is most closely related to TIDES, not to waves? 

A) beach drift

B) marine terrace   

C) sea stack

D) ebb current